Qus 203 :
Which mode in the
Resultant Set of Policy Wizard is useful for documenting and
understanding how combined policies are affecting users and
computers?
A. Logging
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Auditing
Ans: A
Qus 204 :
Active Directory
writes transactions to the __________ log file.
A. system
B. security
C. transaction
D. DNS
Ans: C
Qus 205 :
What command-line
tool can analyze the state of the domain controllers in the forest or
enterprise and report any problems to assist in troubleshooting?
A. dcdiag
B. netdom
C. repadmin
D. nltest
Ans: A
Qus 206 :
Configuring Active
Directory diagnostic event logging requires that you edit what
registry key?
A.
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Services\\NTDS\\Diagnostics
B.
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Services\\NTDS\\
C.
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Services\\
D.
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\\SYSTEM\\CurrentControlSet\\Diagnostics\\
Ans: A
Qus 207 :
Which of the
following is not a column of the host table?
A. IP address
B. distinguished
name
C. host name
D. comments
Ans: B
Qus 208 :
What can be
configured to enable enterprise-wide NetBIOS name resolution for your
clients and servers?
A. DNS
B. WINS
C. PPPoE
D. DHCP
Ans: B
Qus 209 :
What DNS server
receives queries from other DNS servers that are explicitly
configured to send them?
A. forwarder
B. resolver
C. secondary DNS
server
D. caching-only
server
Ans: A
Qus 210 :
What will forward
queries selectively based on the domain specified in the name
resolution request?
A. conditional
forwarder
B. Boolean forwarder
C. systematic
forwarder
D. alias-based
forwarder
Ans: A
Qus 211 :
What is an entity
that issues and manages digital certificates for use in a PKI, such
as a Windows Server 2008 server running the AD CS server role?
A. PKI
B. Certificate
Authority
C. ILM
D. access point
Ans: B
Qus 212 :
What is at the top
level of a CA hierarchy?
A. top CA
B. subordinate CA
C. master CA
D. root CA
Ans: D
Qus 213 :
Users with what
predefined security role are tasked with issuing and managing
certificates, including approving certificate enrollment and
revocation requests?
A. CA Administrator
B. Certificate
Manager
C. Backup Operator
D. Auditors
Ans: B
Qus 214 :
What ACL
specifically allows users or computers to be automatically issued
certificates based on a template?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Autoenroll
D. Enroll
Ans: C
Qus 215 :
The __________
Domain Controller contains a copy of the ntds.dit file that cannot be
modified and does not replicate its changes to other domain
controllers within Active Directory.
A. Secondary
B. Primary
C. Read-Only
D. Mandatory
Ans: C
Qus 216 :
What master database
contains definitions of all objects in the Active Directory?
A. schema
B. global catalog
C. DNS
D. domain controller
Ans: A
Qus 217 :
What type of trust
is new to Windows Server 2008 and is only available when the forest
functionality is set to Windows Server 2008?
A. parent-child
trust
B. two-way
transitive trust
C. cross-forest
trust
D. simple trust
Ans: C
Qus 218 :
What command can you
use to run the Active Directory Installation Wizard?
A. adpromo
B. dcpromo
C. domainpromo
D. adcreate
Ans: B
Qus 219 :
What SRV record
information serves as a mechanism to set up load balancing between
multiple servers that are advertising the same SRV records?
A. priority
B. time-to-live
C. weight
D. port
Ans: A
Qus 220 :
What feature makes
it possible to configure a user as the local administrator of a
specific RODC without making the user a Domain Admins with
far-reaching authority over all domain controllers in your entire
domain and full access to your Active Directory domain data?
A. Role Delegation
B. Admin Role
Separation
C. New
Administrative Security Groups
D. Domain Functional
Levels
Ans: B
Qus 221 :
What command-line
tool is used to create, delete, verify, and reset trust relationships
from the Windows Server 2008 command line?
A. adtrust
B. netdom
C. csvde
D. nslookup
Ans: B
Qus 222 :
Domain controllers
located in different sites will participate in __________
replication.
A. intersite
B. extrasite
C. extersite
D. intrasite
Ans: A
Qus 223 :
What describes the
amount of time that it takes for all domain controllers in the
environment to contain the most up-to-date information?
A. replication
B. convergence
C. completion
D. propagation
Ans: B
Qus 224 :
How often does
replication occur in intersite replication?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 90 minutes
D. 180 minutes
Ans: D
Qus 225 :
The ISTG
automatically assigns one server in each site as the bridgehead
server unless you override this by establishing a list of __________
bridgehead servers.
A. manual
B. preferred
C. static
D. designated
Ans: B
Qus 226 :
As a rule of thumb,
you should estimate __________ percent of the size of the ntds.dit
file of every other domain in the forest when sizing hardware for a
global catalog server.
A. 15
B. 25
C. 50
D. 70
Ans: C
Qus 227 :
How many FSMO roles
does Active Directory support?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 12
Ans: B
Qus 228 :
What is used to
uniquely identify an object throughout the Active Directory domain?
A. security
identifier
B. relative
identifier
C. intermediate
identifier
D. domain identifier
Ans: A
Qus 229 :
Each object’s SID
consists of two components: the domain portion and the __________.
A. FSMO role
B. global catalog
C. subnet mask
D. relative
identifier
Ans: D
Qus 230 :
Which of the
following is not a type of user account that can be configured in
Windows Server 2008?
A. local accounts
B. domain accounts
C. network accounts
D. built-in accounts
Ans: C
Qus 231 :
__________ groups
are nonsecurity-related groups created for the distribution of
information to one or more persons.
A. Security
B. Domain
C. Distribution
D. Local
Ans: C
Qus 232 :
__________ groups
are used to consolidate groups and accounts that either span multiple
domains or the entire forest.
A. Global
B. Domain local
C. Built-in
D. Universal
Ans: D
Qus 233 :
A __________ is an
alphanumeric sequence of characters that you enter with a username to
access a server, workstation, or shared resource.
A. PIN
B. password
C. SecureID
D. biometric
Ans: B
Qus 234 :
What tool allows you
to utilize a simple interface to delegate permissions for domains,
OUs, or containers?
A. Delegation Wizard
B. Delegation of
Control Wizard
C. Delegation of
Administration Wizard
D. Administration
Wizard
Ans: B
Qus 235 :
Where is the
certificate database located on a Certification Authority?
A.
C:\\Windows\\system\\CertLog
B.
C:\\Windows\\system32\\CertLog
C.
C:\\Windows\\CertLog
D.
C:\\Windows\\system32\\CertLog32
Ans: B
Qus 236 :
Which of the
following is an administrative benefit of using Group Policy?
A. Administrators
have control over centralized configuration of user settings,
application installation, and desktop configuration.
B. Problems due to
missing application files and other minor application errors often
can be alleviated by the automation of application repairs.
C. Centralized
backup of user files eliminates the need and cost of trying to
recover files from a damaged drive.
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Qus 237 :
What directory
object includes subcontainers that hold GPO policy information?
A. Group Policy
template
B. AD GPO template
set
C. Group Policy
container
D. AD GPO container
set
Ans: C
Qus 238 :
Configuring what
setting on an individual GPO link forces a particular GPO’s
settings to flow down through the Active Directory without being
blocked by any child OUs?
A. Enforce
B. Block Policy
Inheritance
C. Loopback
Processing
D. Propagate
Ans: A
Qus 239 :
What policy setting
is set to audit successes in the Default Domain Controllers GPO?
A. system events
B. policy change
events
C. account
management events
D. logon events
Ans: C
Qus 240 :
What policy setting
allows an administrator to specify group membership lists?
A. Limited Groups
B. Restricted Groups
C. Strict Groups
D. Confined Groups
Ans: B
Qus 241 :
What term means that
the Group Policy setting continues to apply until it is reversed by
using a policy that overwrites the setting?
A. stamping
B. confining
C. tattooing
D. defining
Ans: C
Qus 242 :
How often are
Computer Configuration group policies refreshed by default?
A. every 30 minutes
B. every 60 minutes
C. every 90 minutes
D. every 120 minutes
Ans: C
Qus 243 :
What process takes
place from the time an application is evaluated for deployment in an
organization until the time when it is deemed old or not suitable for
use?
A. software life
cycle
B. software
longevity cycle
C. software duration
cycle
D. software usage
cycle
Ans: A
Qus 244 :
What allows
published applications to be organized within specific groupings for
easy navigation?
A. software
classifications
B. software methods
C. software
categories
D. software
assignments
Ans: C
Qus 245 :
What type of rule
can be applied to allow only Windows Installer packages to be
installed if they come from a trusted area of the network?
A. hash rule
B. certificate rule
C. path rule
D. network zone
rules
Ans: D
Qus 246 :
Which of the
following can be done from the Group Policy Management snap-in?
A. import and copy
GPO settings to and from the file system
B. search for GPOs
based on name, permissions, WMI filter, GUID, or policy extensions
set in the GPOs
C. search for
individual settings within a GPO by keyword, and search for only
those settings that have been configured
D. all of the above
Ans: D
Qus 247 :
__________ GPOs can
act as templates when creating new GPOs for your organization.
A. Template
B. Base
C. Starter
D. Set
Ans: C
Qus 248 :
Which mode in the
Resultant Set of Policy Wizard allows administrators to simulate the
effect of policy settings prior to implementing them on a computer or
user?
A. Logging
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Auditing
Ans: B
Qus 249 :
WMI Filtering uses
filters written in what language, which is similar to structured
query language (SQL)?
A. PostGRE SQL
B. Microsoft SQL
Server
C. WMI Query
Language
D. WIM Query
Language
Ans: C
Qus 250 :
What tool in Windows
Server 2008 allows you to collect real-time information on your local
computer or from a specific computer to which you have permissions?
A. Performance Log
Viewer
B. Performance
Monitor
C. Reliability and
Performance Monitor
D. Performance and
Statistics Monitor
Ans: C
Qus 251 :
What in the event
log is indicated by a red circle with an X on it?
A. warning
B. problem
C. driver issue
D. stop error
Ans: D
Qus 252 :
If you find yourself
in a position where you need to restore an object or container within
Active Directory that has been inadvertently deleted, you need to
perform what type of restore?
A. nonauthoritative
restore
B. authoritative
restore
C. full restore
D. incremental
restore
Ans: B
Qus 253 :
What represents the
computer’s IP address in applications and other references?
A. client name
B. dns name
C. host name
D. server name
Ans: C
Qus 254 :
In what type of
query does the server that receives the name resolution request
immediately respond to the requester with the best information it
possesses?
A. formative
B. iterative
C. recursive
D. aligned
Ans: B
Qus 255 :
What type of zone
forwards or refers requests to the appropriate server that hosts a
primary zone for the selected query?
A. secondary zone
B. stub zone
C. primary zone
D. forwarder zone
Ans: B
Qus 256 :
What electronic
piece of information proves the identity of the entity that has
signed a particular document?
A. electronic
signature
B. Certificate
Authority
C. PKI certification
D. digital signature
Ans: D
Qus257 : What
identifies certificates that have been revoked or terminated?
A. Certificate
Revocation List
B. PKI Expiration
List
C. PKI Revocation
List
D. CA Expiration
List
Ans: A
Ques258
The roles in the
Add Roles Wizard fall into what three basic categories?
A= Directory
Services
B. Application
Services
C. Infrastructure
Services
D. Network Services
Ans. = D
Ques259
What is Microsoft’s
program for automating and managing the activation of products
obtained using volume licenses?
A. Windows
Validation
B. Volume Activation
C. Volume
Activation 2.0
D. Windows Genuine
Advantage
Ans. = C
Ques260:
A __________ is a
complete installation of an operating system that runs in a software
environment emulating a physical computer.
A. virtual machine
B. virtual server
C. terminal machine
D. terminal server
Ans. = B
Ques261:
The Windows Server
2008 paging file is __________ times the amount of memory installed
in the computer by default.
A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3
Ans. = A
Ques262:
Used with the Use
parameter, what command-line utility can be used to map drive letters
to folders in logon scripts?
A. Net.exe
B. Cmd.exe
C. Ipconfig.exe
D. Cscript.exe
Ans. = A
Ques263:
What Windows Server
2008 feature enables you to maintain previous versions of files on a
server?
A. Backup Tape
B. Shadow Copies
C. Shadow Files
D. Offline Files
Ans. = B
Ques264:
What feature of DFS
distributes access requests, thus preventing any one server from
shouldering the entire traffic load?
A. data distribution
B. data collection
C. server clustering
D. load balancing
Ans. = D
Ques265:
DFS can distribute
access requests by using what feature, thus preventing any one server
from shouldering the entire traffic load?
A. data distribution
B. load balancing
C. data collection
D. server clustering
Ans. = B
Ques266:
What administrative
tool consolidates the controls for printing components throughout the
enterprise into a single console?
A. Print Services
role
B. Print Management
snap-in
C. Server Manager
D. Server Core
Ans. = B
Ques267:
How is a local print
device attached to a computer?
A. through the
network
B. through computer
ports
C. through another
computer
D. none of the above
Ans. = B
Ques268:
What snap-in for
MMC is an administrative tool that consolidates the controls for the
printing components throughout the enterprise into a single console?
A. Print Management
B. Print and Fax
Wizard
C. Device Manager
D. None of the
above
Ans. = A
Ques269:
HTTP uses what
well-known port number?
A. 80
B. 25
C. 12
D. 110
Ans. = C
Ques270:
What determines how
listeners will identify requests on a Website?
A. Remote Desktop
Connection
B. Windows Process
Activation Service
C. binding
D. icon-based
interface
Ans. = C
Ques271:
What allows a
company to host the same documents on several different Websites
without copying the documents to each content folder?
A. Role Manager
B. virtual directory
C. Add Role Wizard
D. Server Role
Administration
Ans. = B
Ques272:
Participants in what
type of infrastructure are issued a public and a private key?
A. public key
B. private key
C. secure key
D. encrypted key
Ans. = A
Ques273:
What is the weakest
of the challenge/response authentication methods supported by IIS7?
A. Basic
Authentication
B. Anonymous
Authentication
C. Digest
Authentication
D. Windows
Authentication
Ans. = A
Ques274:
Permissions tend to
run down through a hierarchy, which is called __________.
A. permission
translation
B. permission
propagation
C. permission flow
D. permission
inheritance
Ans. = D
Ques275:
What XML-based
directory service enables businesses to publish listings about their
activities and the services they offer?
A. ASP
B. ASP.NET
C. UDDI
D. SSI
Ans. = C
Ques276:
What component is
most likely to be a bottleneck on a terminal server?
A. resource
allocation
B. memory
C. processor
D. scalability
Ans. = B
Ques277:
Users must have the
appropriate privileges to access a terminal server, and the easiest
way to provide those privileges is by adding the user to what group?
A. RDP Users
B. Remote Desktop
Users
C. Terminal Users
D. Domain
Administrators
Ans. = B
Ques278:
What type of
licensing permits one user to connect to the terminal server no
matter what device the user is running?
A. Per Device
B. Per User
C. Per System
D. Per OU
Ans. = B
Ques279:
What Windows Server
2008 feature eliminates the need for the printer driver on the
terminal server?
A. Easy Print
B. Print Driver 6.1
C. Quick Print
D. Print+
Ans. = A
Ques280:
What real-time,
modular operating system is designed for devices with minimal amounts
of memory?
A. Windows CE
B. Proprietary OS
C. Windows XPe
D. Linux
Ans. = A
Ques281:
The TS Gateway role
service enables Terminal Services to support Internet clients
securely using the same tunneling concept as a VPN connection except,
in this case, the computers encapsulate RDP traffic within what
protocol?
A. HTTP
B. SSH
C. RDP
D. SSL
Ans. = D
Ques282:
What process do
clients and the server use to negotiate the most efficient protocol
to use when you enable both the RTSP and HTTP protocols on a Windows
Media Services server?
A. multicast
B. protocol
negotiation
C. protocol rollover
D. multicast
rollover
Ans. = C
Ques283:
What type of server
must you install to provide users with email capabilities in Windows
SharePoint Server?
A. POP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. PHP
Ans. = B
Ques284:
What enables
administrators to protect specific types of information from
unauthorized consumption and distribution, even by users who have the
appropriate credentials and permissions to access the information?
A. Digital Rights
Management
B. Digital Media
Management
C. Digital
Authenticity Management
D. Digital File
Management
Ans. = A
Ques285:
The Windows Server
2008 version of Windows Media Services uses what protocol to stream
multimedia content?
A. Hypertext
Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
B. Real Time
Streaming Protocol (RTSP)
C. File Transfer
Protocol (FTP)
D. Standard Media
Protocol (SMP)
Ans. = B
Ques286:
What does RAID stand
for?
A. Redundant Array
of Interoperative Disks
B. Repetitive Array
of Independent Disks
C. Redundant Array
of Interpretive Disks
D. Redundant Array
of Independent Disks
Ans. = D
Ques287:
When deploying a
server using a WDS installation, the client downloads a boot image
that loads __________.
A. Windows PE
B. Windows Software
Update Services
C. Windows
Deployment Services
D. Windows Image
Formatting
Ans. = A
Ques288:
The process of
granting a user access to a file server share by reading their
permissions is called __________.
A. authorization
B. authentication
C. ownership
D. delegation
Ans. = A
Ques289:
How many fax job
queues can be on a single system?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans. = A
Ques290:
Which service
enables IIS to respond to a variety of incoming message types and not
just HTTP?
A. Terminal Services
B. File Transfer
Protocol (FTP)
C. Windows Process
Activation Service (WPAS)
D. Directory
Services
.Ans. = C
Ques291:
Which service
enables developers to modify the functionality of the Web server,
using the ASP.Net extensibility model and the .NET application
programming interfaces (APIs)?
A. Role Manager
B. Server Role
Administration
C. .NET
Extensibility
D. Add Role Wizard
Ans. = C
Ques292:
What is the only
authentication method integrated into IIS7 that IIS7 enables by
default?
A. Basic
Authentication
B. Anonymous
Authentication
C. Digest
Authentication
D. Windows
Authentication
Ans. = B
Ques293:
Which listener
enables IIS7 to receive client requests using ports other than port
80 and protocols other than HTTP?
A. NET.PIPE
B. NET.MSMQ
C. NET.TCP
D. All of the above
Ans. = D
Ques294:
When installed, the
SMTP server is integrated into __________.
A. IIS
B. Windows Server
2008
C. UDDI
D. Microsoft SQL
Server
Ans. = A
Ques295:
What role configures
a computer to function as a Terminal Services licensing Server,
enabling it to allocate client access licenses (CALs) to clients?
A. TS Session Broker
B. TS Gateway
C. Terminal Server
D. TS Licensing
Ans. = D
Ques296:
The Easy Print
driver is based on what document format introduced in Windows Vista
and Windows Server 2008?
A. PXS
B. XPS
C. XP
D. XML
Ans. = B
Ques297:
What is used to
specify which Internet users are allowed to use a terminal server?
A. connection
authorization policies
B. resource
authorization policies
C. Group Policy
objects
D. user
authorization policies
Ans. = A
Ques:298
What specifies the
terminal servers on the private network that users are permitted to
access?
A. Group Policy
objects
B. user
authorization policies
C. connection
authorization policies
D. resource
authorization policies
Ans. = D
Ques299:
Which component
registers and locates iSCSI initiators and targets?
A. iSCSI Initiator
B. Storage Manager
for SANs
C. Internet Storage
Name Server
D. Storage Explorer
Ans. = C
Ques300:
Which of the
following defines the basic transport mechanism of a Fibre Channel
network, including the frame format and three service classes: a
connection-oriented class, a connectionless class with
acknowledgments, and a connectionless class without acknowledgments?
A. FC1
B. FC2
C. FC3
D. FC4
Ans. = B
Ques301:
Network File System
(NFS) places the bulk of the file sharing process on the __________.
A. storage device
B. client
C. server
D. File Manager
Ans. = B
Ques302:
Network File System
(NFS) places the bulk of the file-sharing process on the __________.
A. server
B. File Manager
C. storage device
D. client
Ans. = D
Ques303:
What increases the
production capability of a single printer by connecting it to
multiple print devices?
A. print spooler
B. print priority
C. printer pool
D. print queue
Ans. = C
Ques304:
The IIS7 built-in
account IUSR is a member of what group?
A. WWW_IUSRS
B. IIS_WWWUSRS
C. IIS_IUSRS
D. IIS_GROUP
Ans. = C
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